> I'm just curious - why is it not possible to use the "=" operator to
> compare values with NULL? I suspect that the SQL standard specified it
> that way, but I can't see any ambiguity in an expression like "AND
> foo.bar = NULL". Is it because NULL does not "equal" any value, and the
> expression should be read as "foo.bar is unknown"? Or is there something
> else I'm missing?
As noted elsewhere, joining two tables on "a.foo = b.foo" where both foo
values are NULL is not usually what you want.
But if you really, truly do want that, then you always have this:
coalesce(a.foo,0) = coalesce(b.foo,0)
or a similar construct, using something in place of zero that has the
same base type as a.foo and b.foo, and which doesn't occur in either table.
(Why? Because you really don't want
a.foo = coalesce(b.foo,0)
or
b.foo = coalesce(a.foo,0)
to give you false positives.)
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________
Jeffery Boes <>< jboes@qtm.net