Re: Shall I apply normalization in the following case?

On Wed, 2010-02-03 at 17:20 -0800, Yan Cheng Cheok wrote:
> For example, for the following table,
>
>
> measurement (without normalization)
> ===========
> id | value | measurement_unit | measurement_type
> ------------------------------------------------
> 1   0.23     mm                    width
> 2   0.38     mm                    width
> 2   0.72     mm                    width

That looks normalized to me. Can you describe the redundancy that I
don't see? Do units of "mm" always imply "width" (I would think they
might also be used for "length").

Regards,
    Jeff Davis